A 58-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2, comes to the office for evaluation of increased urinary frequency and painful urination. The patient developed these symptoms 2 days ago, and they did not improve despite increasing fluid intake and voiding regularly. She has had 2 other episodes of acute simple cystitis in the past 8 months, which resolved with antibiotics. The patient underwent menopause at age 53 and has had no episodes of postmenopausal bleeding. BMI is 28 kg/m2. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows mild suprapubic tenderness and no costovertebral tenderness. Pelvic examination shows thin vulvar tissue but no excoriations or lesions. Urinalysis is positive for leukocyte esterase and nitrites. The patient is prescribed a course of antibiotics and is asymptomatic a week later. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient's symptoms?
A) Cystoscopy
B) Daily probiotic consumption
C) Pelvic ultrasound
D) Topical corticosteroids
E) Urine cytology
F) Vaginal estrogen
Correct Answer:
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