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A 67-Year-Old Woman, Gravida 1 Para 1, Comes to the Office

Question 8

Multiple Choice

A 67-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, comes to the office for a routine health examination.  The patient feels well.  Her last menstrual period was at age 53 with no bleeding since.  Pap test and human papillomavirus (HPV) cotesting were negative 2 years ago at age 65.  All prior Pap tests were normal.  The patient is sexually active in a monogamous relationship with her husband of 42 years.  She has no medical conditions.  The patient had an ovarian cystectomy via laparotomy at age 37 for a benign cystic teratoma.  She takes no medications and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.  There is no family history of cancer.  BMI is 25 kg/m2.  Pelvic examination shows a normal cervix without lesions; a smooth, anteverted, mobile uterus; and no adnexal masses.  Screening mammography was normal 6 months ago, and screening colonoscopy was normal 2 years ago.  Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for cervical cancer screening in this patient?


A) HPV testing only at this visit
B) No further screening
C) Pap and HPV testing at this visit
D) Pap test only at this visit
E) Repeat Pap test in 3 years

Correct Answer:

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