A 39-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 38 weeks gestation, comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit. The patient feels well and reports normal fetal activity. Last week, she had nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea for 24 hours, but she has been able to eat and drink normally for the past several days. For the past 2 days, the patient has had increased clear vaginal discharge with irregular, painful contractions but no vaginal bleeding. She has no chronic medical conditions, and her only medication is a prenatal vitamin. Temperature is 99.6 F (37.6 C) , blood pressure is 132/86 mm Hg, and pulse is 96/min. The uterus is nontender and the fundal height is 34 cm. Fetal heart tones are 135/min. Fetal ultrasound shows a cephalic fetus, measuring at the 50th percentile for gestational age, and an amniotic fluid index of 2 cm (normal: >5 cm) . Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's amniotic fluid level?
A) Fetal congenital infection
B) Maternal dehydration
C) Normal gestational age variant
D) Rupture of membranes
E) Uteroplacental insufficiency
Correct Answer:
Verified
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