A 38-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 28 weeks gestation comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit. The patient has had no abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, or leakage of fluid. She reports active fetal movement. The patient has been on antiretroviral therapy since being diagnosed with HIV 3 years ago, and her last viral load was undetectable. She had negative syphilis and hepatitis C screening at her initial prenatal visit. Blood pressure is 122/74 mm Hg, and pulse is 86/min. The abdomen is nontender, and fundal height is 28 cm. Fetal heart tones are 140/min. The rest of the examination is normal. Laboratory results are as follows:
Ultrasound of the right upper quadrant shows no stones or dilation of the common bile duct. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) 24-hour urine protein collection
B) Antinuclear antibody testing
C) Immediate delivery
D) Serum ceruloplasmin
E) Viral hepatitis serology
Correct Answer:
Verified
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