A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2, comes to the office for a postpartum visit and to discuss contraception. Two weeks ago, the patient had a vaginal delivery at 36 weeks gestation. She is breastfeeding exclusively with no issues. Her lochia has decreased, and she has no pelvic pain. The patient would like to start reliable contraception as soon as possible because she conceived while breastfeeding after her first pregnancy. She takes a daily iron supplement for iron deficiency anemia due to heavy menstrual bleeding. The patient has no other chronic medical conditions and takes no medications. Vital signs are normal. Pelvic examination is deferred. Which of the following is the best contraceptive option for this patient?
A) Combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptives
B) Copper-containing intrauterine device
C) Diaphragm and condoms
D) Endometrial ablation
E) Progestin-only oral contraceptives
F) Subdermal progestin-releasing implant
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q35: A 46-year-old woman comes to the office
Q36: A 38-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q37: A 28-year-old woman comes to the office
Q38: A 32-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q39: Two wide-bore intravenous lines are placed, and
Q41: A 29-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the
Q42: A 23-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q43: A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1,
Q44: A 28-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the
Q45: A 38-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents