A 28-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office for a routine examination. She feels well but has tried to conceive for the past 12 months without success. The patient has had sexual intercourse with her husband 3 or 4 times a week without contraception. Her menses are irregular with frequent missed periods. Every time the patient misses a period, her home pregnancy tests are negative. She has no medical conditions and has had no surgeries. The patient takes a daily prenatal vitamin and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are normal. There is no excess hair on physical examination. Breast examination shows no masses or nipple discharge. The abdomen is soft without masses. Pelvic examination shows normal external genitalia and a small, mobile uterus. Pelvic ultrasonography shows a normal uterus and bilateral ovaries. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Androgen-secreting tumor
B) Endometriosis
C) Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
D) Hypothyroidism
E) Pituitary adenoma
F) Polycystic ovary syndrome
G) Primary ovarian insufficiency
H) Tubal occlusion
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q39: Two wide-bore intravenous lines are placed, and
Q40: A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2,
Q41: A 29-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the
Q42: A 23-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q43: A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1,
Q45: A 38-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the
Q46: A 34-year-old woman comes to the office
Q47: A 16-year-old girl comes to the office
Q48: A 34-year-old woman comes to the office
Q49: A 32-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks gestation
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents