A 32-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to left lower quadrant abdominal pain. The pain started suddenly this morning along with nausea, but she has had no vomiting or diarrhea. The patient has a history of heavy menstrual bleeding due to uterine fibroids, which was previously controlled with combined oral contraceptives. She recently stopped the pills to try for pregnancy, and her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. BMI is 30 kg/m2. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 122/84 mm Hg, and pulse is 82/min. The abdomen is soft and diffusely tender to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant, but there is no rebound or guarding. The uterus is enlarged, irregular in contour, and nontender. Urine pregnancy testing is negative. Ultrasound reveals multiple subserosal and intramural uterine fibroids, a homogenous endometrial stripe, moderate free fluid in the pelvis, and a left ovary with a 4-cm cyst with thin walls. Which of the following is the best next step in the immediate management of this patient?
A) Broad-spectrum antibiotics
B) CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
C) Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
D) Laparoscopic ovarian cystectomy
E) Laparotomy with myomectomy
F) Observation and reassurance only
Correct Answer:
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