A 33-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2, comes to the office for evaluation of abnormal uterine bleeding. Ten months ago, the patient had a spontaneous vaginal delivery complicated by a postpartum hemorrhage that required a blood transfusion and emergent suction curettage. Since the delivery, the patient has had increasingly irregular menses and has been amenorrheic for the past 3 months. She is bottle-feeding her infant and is not taking contraceptives. The patient has lost 13.6 kg (30 lb) since the delivery and is now below her prepregnancy weight. BMI is 22 kg/m2. Blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg and pulse is 62/min. Visual fields are intact. The thyroid has no palpable masses. Cardiopulmonary examination is unremarkable. Pelvic examination shows a minimally rugated vagina; the uterus and cervix are small and nontender to palpation. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Serum TSH and prolactin levels are normal; FSH is elevated. Pelvic ultrasound shows a uterus with a thin endometrium and no adnexal masses. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
A) Accelerated ovarian follicle depletion
B) Chronic anovulation from polycystic ovaries
C) Decreased hypothalamic GnRH secretion
D) Endometrial cavity adhesions and fibrosis
E) Infarction of the pituitary gland
Correct Answer:
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