A 15-year-old girl is brought to the office due to irregular menstrual periods. Menarche was at age 13, and since then her periods have been irregular with cycles varying from 3 to 8 weeks. The patient has no chronic medical issues, has never had surgery, and takes no medications. Her mother and older sister have polycystic ovary syndrome, and both take oral contraceptives. The patient has never been sexually active. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows normal hair distribution with Tanner V secondary sexual characteristics. Abdominal examination is normal. There is dark red blood noted at the cervical os with no active bleeding. Serum prolactin and TSH levels are normal. Administration of micronized oral progesterone results in withdrawal bleeding in 3 days. Pelvic ultrasound reveals normal ovaries and uterus. Which of the following is the most likely explanation of this patient's irregular menstrual periods?
A) Androgen excess
B) Estrogen deficiency
C) Excess LH secretion
D) Insufficient gonadotropin secretion
E) Intrauterine adhesions
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q61: A 42-year-old woman comes to the office
Q62: A 26-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the
Q63: A 29-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q64: A 33-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2,
Q65: A 48-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 3,
Q67: Which of the following is the most
Q68: A 15-year-old girl is brought to the
Q69: A 22-year-old woman comes to the clinic
Q70: A 15-year-old girl comes to the office
Q71: A 53-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents