A 27-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2, comes to the office for follow-up for postpartum depression. Five months ago, she underwent an operative vaginal delivery complicated by a second-degree perineal laceration. After delivery, the patient was started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for postpartum depression. Her mood has improved, but she is now having relationship issues. The patient reports no change in libido, but she has been avoiding sexual intimacy since delivery due to pain and dryness during intercourse. She is exclusively breastfeeding, and her menses have not returned. Vital signs are normal. The perineal laceration is intact. The vulva is nontender and normal perianal sensation and wink reflex are present. Pain is not reproducible on speculum examination. The vagina has minimal rugation with scant clear discharge. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
A) Hypoestrogenism
B) Medication side effect
C) Pudendal nerve injury
D) Vaginismus
E) Vestibular hypersensitivity
Correct Answer:
Verified
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