A 25-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office due to continued pelvic and lower back pain. The pain has worsened over the past year. It is constant but intensifies a few days before the patient's menstruation and improves toward the end of her cycle. The patient has been in a monogamous relationship for the past 4 years. She started taking ibuprofen and combined oral contraceptives 9 months ago when she began having pelvic pain, and they have minimally improved her pain. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) and blood pressure is 120/78 mm Hg. BMI is 24 kg/m2. Examination shows tenderness in the posterior vaginal fornix, decreased uterine mobility, and thickening of the uterosacral ligaments. No adnexal masses are palpated. Urine β-hCG is negative. Hemoglobin is 12 g/dL and leukocytes are 8,200/mm3. Transvaginal ultrasound reveals normal pelvic anatomy.
Which of the following is the best next step in evaluation of this patient?
A) CT scan of the pelvis
B) Endometrial biopsy
C) Hysterosalpingogram
D) Laparoscopy
E) No additional evaluation indicated
Correct Answer:
Verified
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