A 45-year-old woman comes to the office for an annual well-woman visit. She feels well and has no concerns. The patient takes a combined estrogen/progestin oral contraceptive and has regular monthly menses. She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no prior surgeries. The patient had 2 term vaginal deliveries in her 30s, and her last Pap smear with human papillomavirus cotesting was normal 5 years ago. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Her last menstrual period started 2 days ago. Blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg and pulse is 70/min. BMI is 23 kg/m2. Pelvic examination shows a multiparous cervix without lesions. Pap testing reveals benign-appearing endometrial cells and no intraepithelial lesions. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Cervical conization
B) Colposcopy
C) Endometrial biopsy
D) Pelvic ultrasound
E) Routine Pap testing
Correct Answer:
Verified
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