A 32-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 3, comes to the office for a 2-week postoperative follow-up after undergoing a laparoscopic bilateral tubal ligation. The patient has no pain or abnormal discharge from the incision sites. She has no chronic medical conditions, and this was her only surgery. The patient has a regular menstrual period that occurs every 30 days. She typically has abdominal cramping that resolves with ibuprofen after the first day and 5 days of bleeding. The tubal ligation was successfully performed; however, during the procedure, multiple subcentimeter, superficial lesions were visualized over the broad ligaments, bladder, and sigmoid colon. Biopsy of a lesion reveals endometrial glands, stroma, and hemosiderin-laden macrophages. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Combined oral contraceptives
B) CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
C) GnRH agonist therapy
D) Reassurance and observation only
E) Surgical resection of the lesions
Correct Answer:
Verified
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