A 60-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of postmenopausal bleeding. The patient went through menopause at age 53 and did not use menopausal hormone therapy. Four months ago, she noticed some postcoital bleeding that resolved within a day. For the last 3 months, the patient has had daily vaginal spotting and sometimes has bleeding similar to the first day of her menstrual cycle. She has obstructive sleep apnea and hyperlipidemia. Pap test last year was normal. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg and pulse is 68/min. BMI is 34 kg/m2. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Speculum examination shows a small amount of blood in the vaginal vault and a normal cervix. Bimanual examination reveals right adnexal fullness and a slightly enlarged uterus. Hemoglobin is 11.8 g/dL. Pelvic ultrasound shows an 11-cm solid ovarian mass and no free fluid in the pelvis. Endometrial biopsy shows complex hyperplasia without atypia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Brenner tumor
B) Embryonal carcinoma
C) Granulosa cell tumor
D) Mature teratoma
E) Metastatic gastric carcinoma
F) Yolk sac tumor
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q142: A 22-year-old woman comes to the office
Q143: A 17-year-old nulligravid girl comes to the
Q144: A 33-year-old woman comes to the office
Q145: A 23-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1,
Q146: A 28-year-old nulliparous woman being evaluated for
Q148: A 16-year-old girl comes to the office
Q149: A 19-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the
Q150: A 22-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the
Q151: A 54-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 3,
Q152: A 22-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents