A 22-year-old woman comes to the office for routine annual examination. The patient has regular menses typically lasting 4 or 5 days with minimal cramping on the first day. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. She normally has no midcycle pain, but for 2 days she has had a mild, sharp pain in her left lower abdomen. The patient has had no nausea, vomiting, dysuria, or changes in bowel movements. She has no chronic medical conditions or previous surgeries. The patient is sexually active and uses a copper-containing intrauterine device (IUD) for contraception. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 22 kg/m2. The abdomen is mildly tender over the left lower quadrant. On speculum examination, the cervix appears normal and without lesions. The IUD strings are visualized at the external cervical os. The uterus is small and mobile, and a 4-cm nontender mass is palpable in the left adnexa. Pelvic ultrasonography reveals a 4-cm simple left ovarian cyst with normal Doppler flow. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Aspiration of ovarian cyst fluid
B) CA-125 testing
C) CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
D) Observation and repeat examination in 6 weeks
E) Ovarian cystectomy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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