A 47-year-old woman comes to the office due to lower abdominal pain that is relieved with urination. The pain has worsened over the past 2 months and she now urinates hourly to minimize the pain. The patient is sexually active but has avoided intercourse recently because it has become painful. She had 4 vaginal deliveries in her 30s and a tubal ligation after her last delivery. The patient has irritable bowel syndrome and takes no medications. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 27 kg/m2. There is tenderness to palpation over the lower abdomen. On bimanual examination, the anterior vaginal wall is tender to palpation, but there is no cervical motion tenderness. The remainder of the pelvic examination is normal, and Valsalva does not elicit any noticeable changes. Urinalysis results are as follows:
A urine culture is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Cystocele
B) Interstitial cystitis
C) Overactive bladder
D) Pelvic inflammatory disease
E) Urethral diverticulum
Correct Answer:
Verified
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