A 52-year-old woman comes to the office because she has not been sleeping well. For the past year, the patient has had no difficulty falling asleep, but has frequent sleep interruption and often awakens with her sheets soaked in sweat. She now has worsening fatigue that is affecting her ability to focus at work. The patient has not been sexually active in the last 6 months due to vaginal dryness and painful intercourse. She has no chronic medical conditions, and her only procedure has been a laparoscopic hysterectomy in her 40s for symptomatic uterine leiomyomata. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 116/78 mm Hg and pulse is 70/min. BMI is 24 kg/m2. Pelvic examination shows pale, thin vulvovaginal tissues and a narrow vaginal introitus. The vaginal cuff is intact and without lesions. The remainder of the physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this patient's symptoms?
A) Clonidine
B) Estrogen-progestin pills
C) Gabapentin
D) Paroxetine
E) Transdermal estrogen patch
Correct Answer:
Verified
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