A 42-year-old, nulliparous woman comes to the office due to abnormal uterine bleeding. The patient previously had regular monthly menses but, for the last 8 months, has had irregular episodes of bleeding and spotting that last 1-5 days. She initially attributed this irregular bleeding to stress but is now having abdominal bloating and daily breast tenderness. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and her Pap test 2 years ago was normal. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. The patient recently married and is hoping to conceive within the next several months. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 30 kg/m2. Breast examination shows bilateral diffuse tenderness and no masses. There is fullness in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen with no rebound or guarding. Pelvic examination shows a large, nontender left adnexal mass. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Pelvic ultrasound reveals a 10-cm, complex left ovarian mass and an irregular endometrial stripe. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Continuous oral contraceptives
B) Endometrial ablation
C) Endometrial biopsy
D) Hysterosalpingogram
E) Progestin-containing intrauterine device
Correct Answer:
Verified
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