A 30-year-old primigravida at 8 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department due to pelvic pain. The patient has had intermittent right lower quadrant pain for the last week, but yesterday it became constant and severe with associated nausea and vomiting. She takes a prenatal vitamin daily and has no chronic medical conditions. Blood pressure is 128/82 mm Hg and pulse is 104/min. BMI is 23 kg/m2. Ultrasound shows an intrauterine fetal pole measuring 8 weeks gestation with cardiac motion at 160/min. There is free fluid in the pelvis, and the right ovary is enlarged and has decreased blood flow on Doppler. The patient undergoes emergency laparoscopy for ovarian torsion, and the right ovary containing the corpus luteum is removed due to necrosis of the ovary. Postoperative ultrasound shows positive intrauterine fetal cardiac activity and free fluid in the pelvis. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) High-dose folic acid supplementation
B) Intramuscular methotrexate
C) Low-dose aspirin
D) Progesterone supplementation
E) Routine prenatal care only
F) Vaginal misoprostol
Correct Answer:
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