A 34-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office for evaluation of abdominal pain. For the last 3 months, the patient has had intermittent abdominal cramping but no nausea, vomiting, or changes in bowel patterns. She stopped taking her combined oral contraceptives 6 months ago to try for pregnancy. Since then, her menses have occured monthly with 5 days of moderate bleeding. The patient's mother had a hysterectomy at age 30 for heavy menstrual bleeding, and her paternal grandmother had breast cancer at age 64. BMI is 24 kg/m². Vital signs are normal. Pelvic examination reveals a palpable right adnexal mass. On ultrasound, there is a 4-cm right adnexal mass that appears thin-walled and has multiple irregular, thickened internal septations. The left ovary appears normal, and there is no free fluid in the pelvis. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following features indicates a need for additional evaluation in this patient?
A) Adnexal mass size
B) Associated symptoms
C) Contraceptive history
D) Family history
E) Mass internal features
F) Parity
Correct Answer:
Verified
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