A 29-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation of leakage of urine. For the past week, the patient has had to urinate every hour and has had leakage of urine while trying to run to the bathroom. She has had no hematuria, dysuria, or flank pain. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and has had no surgeries. She has had 2 vaginal deliveries without complications. The patient drinks multiple cups of coffee and diet soda daily. Temperature is 99 F (37.2 C) , blood pressure is 122/76 mm Hg, and pulse is 84/min. BMI is 29 kg/m². On speculum examination, the bladder has no descent, but the patient leaks urine with Valsalva maneuver. Urine dipstick shows:
Pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Continence pessary placement
B) Hemoglobin A1c level
C) Midurethral sling procedure
D) Oral antibiotic therapy
E) Urodynamic testing
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q156: A 74-year-old woman, gravida 5 para 5,
Q157: A 29-year-old woman comes to the office
Q158: A 34-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the
Q159: A 24-year-old woman comes to the office
Q160: A 26-year-old woman comes to the office
Q162: A 21-year-old woman is brought to the
Q163: A 26-year-old woman comes to the office
Q164: A 48-year-old woman comes to the clinic
Q165: An 88-year-old woman is brought to the
Q166: A 38-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 3,
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents