A 35-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 0 aborta 3, comes in for evaluation of recurrent pregnancy loss. The patient has had 3 first-trimester spontaneous abortions in the last year and is becoming increasingly worried that she will never carry a pregnancy to full term. She has regular, monthly menses with 4-5 days of moderate bleeding and cramping. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and takes a daily prenatal vitamin. Family history is noncontributory. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 24 kg/m2. On pelvic examination, the uterus is small, anteverted, and nontender. There are no adnexal masses. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Transvaginal ultrasound reveals a 2-cm submucosal fibroid at the uterine fundus. Thrombophilia workup is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's recurrent pregnancy loss?
A) Clomiphene ovulation induction
B) Hysteroscopic myomectomy
C) Low-molecular-weight heparin
D) Uterine artery embolization
E) Vaginal progesterone
Correct Answer:
Verified
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