A 33-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office for evaluation of heavy menstrual bleeding. The patient has menses every 28 days with 7-8 days of heavy bleeding. She also has associated cramping, bloating, and pelvic fullness. The patient has episodic migraines with aura and takes preventive therapy. Family history is negative for ovarian, breast, and endometrial cancer. The patient recently started taking prenatal vitamins because she is getting married and planning on pregnancy in the next few months. BMI is 24 kg/m². Vital signs are normal. On pelvic examination, the uterus is enlarged with an irregular contour. Transvaginal ultrasound shows multiple intramural uterine fibroids and a homogeneous endometrial stripe. Hemoglobin is 10 g/dL. Which of the following is the best next step in management for this patient?
A) Endometrial ablation
B) Endometrial biopsy
C) Estrogen/progestin oral contraceptives
D) Tranexamic acid
Correct Answer:
Verified
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