A 17-year-old girl is admitted to the hospital due to heavy menses and a hemoglobin of 5.2 g/dL. On admission, the patient is started on intravenous (IV) estrogen and receives 1 unit of packed red blood cell transfusion. She is then started on a second unit of blood. Five minutes later, the patient becomes anxious and short of breath. Temperature is 38.6 C (101.5 F) , blood pressure is 104/66 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min, and respirations are 30/min. Pulse oximetry shows 98% on room air. The patient appears pale. The oropharynx is clear, and lung examination reveals clear breath sounds bilaterally. There is pain at the IV insertion site, and skin examination shows no rashes. The patient's urine appears dark. The transfusion is stopped. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Epinephrine injection
B) Intravenous furosemide
C) Intravenous normal saline
D) Oral diphenhydramine
E) Supplemental oxygen only
Correct Answer:
Verified
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