A 24-year-old woman comes to the office due to vulvar pain and dysuria for the past 2 days. The patient has not had these symptoms before and has had no increased urinary frequency or flank pain. She returned from a trip to the Caribbean 2 weeks ago and had an intermittent fever and malaise for the last week. The patient is sexually active and has had 3 new male partners over the last 6 months. She has no chronic medical conditions, and her only medication is a combination oral contraceptive. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows grouped, shallow ulcers with surrounding erythema on the left labia minora. The left inguinal lymph nodes are tender to palpation. Urinalysis shows 5-10 leukocytes/hpf and 1-2 erythrocytes/hpf. Urine culture is negative. Which of the following pathogens is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Haemophilus ducreyi
C) Herpes simplex virus
D) Klebsiella granulomatis
E) Mycoplasma genitalium
F) Treponema pallidum
Correct Answer:
Verified
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