A 25-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 10 weeks gestation comes to the office due to a malodorous vaginal discharge. She is sexually active, has no chronic medical conditions, and has no medication allergies. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 26 kg/m2. Fetal heart tones are 160/min. Speculum examination reveals a thin, gray discharge that coats the vaginal walls, but no erythema or edema is present on the vaginal walls or the vulva. There is no cervical or adnexal tenderness. A saline wet mount examination reveals numerous epithelial cells coated with bacteria. No white blood cells or motile organisms are seen. Which of the following is the best management option for this patient?
A) Boric acid vaginal suppository
B) Delay treatment until second trimester
C) Oral azithromycin
D) Oral metronidazole
E) Povidone-iodine vaginal douche
F) Topical fluconazole
Correct Answer:
Verified
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