A 32-year-old primigravid woman at 37 weeks gestation and in active labor is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. On admission, the cervix is 4 cm dilated and 80% effaced, with the fetal vertex at 0 station. The membranes are grossly ruptured with thin, clear amniotic fluid. Fetal heart rate tracing is category I, and the patient receives epidural anesthesia for pain management; she reports complete pain relief. The fetal heart rate tracing 10 minutes later is shown in the following image:
Maternal blood pressure is 60/40 mm Hg and pulse is 60/min. Repeat cervical examination shows the cervix to be 5 cm dilated and 100% effaced and the fetal vertex at +1 station. In addition to intravenous fluids, which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Amnioinfusion
B) Naloxone
C) Phenylephrine
D) Terbutaline
Correct Answer:
Verified
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