A 34-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2, comes to the emergency department due to a 2-day history of fever, rash, and focal perineal pain. The patient was discharged from the hospital 10 days ago after an uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal delivery at 38 weeks gestation. She had a second-degree perineal laceration that was repaired with suture. The patient has been using a perineal pad, but no intravaginal packing after delivery. She has no chronic medical conditions and no medication allergies. Temperature is 40 C (104 F) , blood pressure is 86/54 mm Hg, pulse is 132/min, and respirations are 24/min. The neck is supple. Pulmonary examination reveals bilateral crackles. The abdomen is soft and nontender. A diffuse macular rash is present over the trunk. On pelvic examination, the perineal laceration is tender, but there is no redness or swelling. The uterus is nontender on bimanual examination. Leukocyte count is 20,400/mm3 with 95% neutrophils. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
A) Ceftriaxone
B) Ceftriaxone plus azithromycin
C) Doxycycline
D) Penicillin plus metronidazole
E) Vancomycin plus clindamycin
Correct Answer:
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