A 36-year-old nulligravida comes to the office for an infertility evaluation. Eight months ago, she was found to have a submucosal fibroid and underwent an uncomplicated hysteroscopic resection. The patient had light spotting for several days after surgery but no fever or abnormal vaginal discharge. Her last menstrual period was immediately prior to the procedure, but now she has monthly pelvic pain without bleeding. The patient has had regular, unprotected intercourse for the last 6 months without conception. She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no other surgeries. Vital signs are normal. The uterus is small, mobile, and nontender. Pregnancy test is negative. FSH, TSH, and prolactin levels are normal. Sexually transmitted infection screening is negative. A progesterone withdrawal test does not induce vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's infertility?
A) Endometriosis
B) Intrauterine synechiae
C) Recurrent fibroid
D) Tubal occlusion
E) Uterine septum
Correct Answer:
Verified
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