A 29-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, comes to the office at 20 weeks gestation for a routine obstetric examination. The patient has felt normal fetal movement and has had no contractions, vaginal bleeding, or pelvic pain. She had diet-controlled gestational diabetes mellitus during her first pregnancy and underwent a cesarean delivery at 36 weeks gestation for preterm labor complicated by breech presentation. The patient has chronic hypertension, currently requiring 2 antihypertensive medications. She had a copper-releasing intrauterine device, placed after her first delivery, that was removed last year to try for pregnancy. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 144/96 mm Hg. BMI is 38 kg/m². Ultrasound shows a single cephalic fetus at the 40th percentile for growth. Cervical length is 4.4 cm and a posterior placenta extends over the cervix. Amniotic fluid index measures 18 cm. Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for this patient's ultrasound findings?
A) BMI
B) Chronic hypertension
C) Maternal age
D) Prior cesarean delivery
E) Prior gestational diabetes mellitus
F) Prior preterm birth
G) Recent intrauterine device use
Correct Answer:
Verified
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