A 36-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2, at 35 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department due to leakage of fluid and painless vaginal bleeding. The patient had rupture of membranes 30 minutes ago; the fluid was initially clear but became bloody a few minutes later. She had normal fetal movement earlier today. The patient has not received prenatal care this pregnancy; her 2 previous pregnancies resulted in term cesarean deliveries. She has hypertension but stopped taking her medication when she became pregnant. Temperature is 36.1 C (97 F) , blood pressure is 140/96 mm Hg, and pulse is 92/min. The uterus is nontender. Speculum examination confirms rupture of membranes; the cervical os is 1 cm dilated with minimal vaginal bleeding. Doppler ultrasound is unable to detect fetal heart tones. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
A) Abruptio placentae
B) Intraamniotic infection
C) Placenta previa
D) Uterine rupture
E) Vasa previa
Correct Answer:
Verified
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