A 34-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 20 weeks gestation comes to the office in November for a routine prenatal visit. She is feeling well and has had no vaginal bleeding or cramping. Several weeks ago, the patient had 2 days of fever and pharyngitis that resolved spontaneously. Her 3-year-old son and several of his playmates at day care had similar symptoms. The pregnancy has otherwise been uncomplicated; prenatal screening results from 13 weeks gestation were as follows:
The patient has no chronic medical conditions and is current on her vaccinations. Vital signs are normal. The uterine fundus is below the umbilicus. Ultrasound shows a fetus with bilateral periventricular intracranial calcifications and an enlarged liver with multiple intrahepatic calcifications. The estimated fetal weight is consistent with 16 weeks gestation. Which of the following pathogens is the most likely cause of this patient's ultrasound findings?
A) Cytomegalovirus
B) Influenza virus
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Parvovirus B19
E) Rubella virus
F) Treponema pallidum
Correct Answer:
Verified
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