A 27-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, comes to the office for evaluation of postpartum bleeding. Four days ago, the patient had a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery due to recurrent fetal decelerations. She had a third-degree perineal laceration that was repaired, and she went home on the second postpartum day. Since delivery, the patient has had continuous, dark red vaginal bleeding with small clots, requiring her to change a menstrual pad 6 to 7 times daily. She has no chest pain, shortness of breath, or orthostasis. Temperature is 99.5 F (37.5 C) , blood pressure is 124/76 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. BMI is 33 kg/m2. The uterine fundus is firm, nontender, and palpable at 4 cm below the umbilicus. The perineal laceration repair is intact, and the cervix is 1 cm dilated with minimal dark red blood in the vagina. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Broad-spectrum antibiotics
B) Dilation and curettage
C) Observation and reassurance
D) Quantitative β-hCG test
E) Von Willebrand factor activity test
Correct Answer:
Verified
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