A 36-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 32 weeks gestation comes to the office with dull, low back pain radiating bilaterally to the buttocks and posterior thighs. The pain is minimal in the morning but increases with activity and at the end of the day. She also has ankle edema and numbness in her feet at the end of the day. The patient has urinary frequency and nocturia but no hematuria or dysuria. She had no back pain in her first pregnancy. During that delivery, the patient received epidural anesthesia and had a post-lumbar puncture headache after removal that was treated with an epidural blood patch. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 90/min. She has gained 20 kg (44.1 lb) during this pregnancy. On physical examination, the patient ambulates with a wide, waddling gait. Walking forward or backward causes no change in pain level. There is no spinal or paravertebral tenderness. Deep tendon reflexes are 2+. The abdomen is soft, and the cervix is long, closed, and posterior. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Corticosteroid injection
B) MRI of the spine
C) Reassurance and conservative management
D) Strict bed rest
E) Trial of a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agent
Correct Answer:
Verified
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