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A 24-Year-Old Woman, Gravida 1 Para 0, at 37 Weeks

Question 343

Multiple Choice

A 24-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 37 weeks gestation comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit.  The patient has no concerns today.  Her fetus is active, and she has no contractions, vaginal bleeding, or leakage of fluid.  The patient's pregnancy was dated by a first-trimester ultrasound, and her 18-week ultrasound revealed normal fetal anatomy.  At 26 weeks gestation, her 1-hour glucose screen was abnormal, but her 3-hour glucose tolerance test was normal.  The patient has no medical conditions and has had no surgeries.  Blood pressure is 112/68 mm Hg and pulse is 90/min.  Fundal height is 42 cm and fetal heart rate is 138/min.  Because of the uterine size-dates discrepancy, an ultrasound is performed, which reveals an intrauterine fetus in the cephalic position with an amniotic fluid index of 30 cm (normal: 8-24 cm) .  Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?


A) Amnioreduction
B) Betamethasone
C) Cesarean delivery
D) Expectant management
E) Indomethacin
F) Induction of labor

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