A 24-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 37 weeks gestation comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit. The patient has no concerns today. Her fetus is active, and she has no contractions, vaginal bleeding, or leakage of fluid. The patient's pregnancy was dated by a first-trimester ultrasound, and her 18-week ultrasound revealed normal fetal anatomy. At 26 weeks gestation, her 1-hour glucose screen was abnormal, but her 3-hour glucose tolerance test was normal. The patient has no medical conditions and has had no surgeries. Blood pressure is 112/68 mm Hg and pulse is 90/min. Fundal height is 42 cm and fetal heart rate is 138/min. Because of the uterine size-dates discrepancy, an ultrasound is performed, which reveals an intrauterine fetus in the cephalic position with an amniotic fluid index of 30 cm (normal: 8-24 cm) . Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Amnioreduction
B) Betamethasone
C) Cesarean delivery
D) Expectant management
E) Indomethacin
F) Induction of labor
Correct Answer:
Verified
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