A 27-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, comes to the office for an initial prenatal visit. The patient is uncertain when her last menstrual period occurred, but she has had daily nausea and vomiting for the last 2 months. She has had no vaginal bleeding or pelvic pain. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and has had no surgeries. She takes a daily prenatal vitamin. Vital signs are normal. Abdominal examination reveals a gravid uterus that is nontender, and the fundus is just below the umbilicus. Ultrasound shows 2 intrauterine fetal poles measuring 14 weeks gestation with heart rates of 150/min and 155/min. Cervical length is 4.5 cm. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Cerclage placement
B) Indomethacin
C) Intramuscular hydroxyprogesterone
D) Low-dose aspirin
E) Low-molecular-weight heparin
Correct Answer:
Verified
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