A 22-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is evaluated in the labor and delivery department due to drowsiness. The patient is somnolent but rouses to sternal rub. An hour ago, the patient underwent a cesarean delivery after a failed induction of labor for preeclampsia with severe features. Her delivery was complicated by postpartum hemorrhage with an estimated blood loss of 2,000 mL due to a torn uterine artery. She is currently receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion and a basal-bolus insulin regimen. Temperature is 99.7 F (37.6 C) , blood pressure is 148/96 mm Hg, pulse is 70, and respirations are 10/min. The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Abdominal examination shows a firm uterus with normal tenderness to palpation. The Pfannenstiel incision is intact and has minimal bleeding. The patellar reflexes are absent bilaterally. There is minimal, dark urine in the Foley catheter. Fingerstick blood glucose level is 240 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A) Acute blood loss anemia
B) Amniotic fluid embolism
C) Diabetic ketoacidosis
D) Eclamptic postictal state
E) Magnesium sulfate toxicity
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q383: A 37-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q384: A 23-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q385: A 34-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q386: A 28-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q387: A 28-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q389: A 27-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q390: A 34-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q391: A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q392: The patient is admitted to the hospital,
Q393: A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 3,
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents