A 33-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 27 weeks gestation comes to the office for a prenatal visit. She had an ultrasound at 8 weeks gestation for pregnancy confirmation but has had no other prenatal care. Several weeks ago, the patient had a fever and a diffuse, nonpruritic, maculopapular rash that lasted 2 days and resolved without intervention. She has no chronic medical conditions. Vital signs are normal. Fundal height is 23 cm. Fetal heart rate is 160/min. Fetal ultrasound reveals bilateral ventriculomegaly and multiple intracranial calcifications within the basal ganglia and at the gray-white matter junction. Fetal ascites and hepatosplenomegaly are noted. Estimated fetal weight is below the 5th percentile for gestational age. This patient's presentation is most likely due to fetal infection from which of the following pathogens?
A) Herpes simplex virus
B) Listeria monocytogenes
C) Parvovirus B19
D) Toxoplasma gondii
E) Varicella-zoster virus
Correct Answer:
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