A 22-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, is evaluated in the postpartum unit for lower abdominal pressure and pain. The patient underwent an induction of labor at 41 weeks gestation due to oligohydramnios. She received epidural anesthesia and had a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery due to prolonged second stage of labor. A second-degree perineal laceration was repaired after delivery, and she had a postpartum hemorrhage that resolved with uterotonic medications. The patient is now 6 hours postpartum; she has been unable to void since delivery and has persistent urine dribbling while lying in bed. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, and pulse is 92/min. BMI is 33 kg/m2. Physical examination reveals a firm uterine fundus and diffuse lower abdominal tenderness to palpation. The perineal repair is intact and there is moderate lochia. Deep tendon reflexes are normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's urinary symptoms?
A) Bladder atony
B) Detrusor overactivity
C) Hypovolemia
D) Urethral injury
E) Vaginal atrophy
F) Vesicovaginal fistula
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q425: A 32-year-old primigravida at 18 weeks gestation
Q426: A 24-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q427: A 22-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q428: A 29-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q429: A 23-year-old primigravid woman comes to the
Q431: A newborn male infant is evaluated in
Q432: A 34-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 3,
Q433: A 36-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the
Q434: A 38-year-old woman, gravida 7 para 6,
Q435: A 33-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents