A 36-year-old woman comes to the office due to worsening pain and swelling of her left third finger. The symptoms began 3 days ago with redness at the lateral margin of the fingernail. The patient recently received a manicure at a new salon. She has had no similar symptoms in the past. The patient is a laboratory technician and uses gloves regularly while working. She was treated for a positive tuberculin skin test 10 years ago, but her medical history is otherwise unremarkable. The patient smokes a pack of cigarettes daily, drinks 2-4 beers on weekend nights, and does not use illicit drugs. Temperature is 36.6 C (97.9 F) , blood pressure is 128/76 mm Hg, and pulse is 68/min. Examination shows erythema, edema, and tenderness of the lateral nail fold of the left third finger. There is no fluctuance, and the nail appears normal. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient's condition?
A) Antiseptic soaks and topical antibiotics
B) High-potency topical corticosteroid
C) Oral acyclovir therapy
D) Oral terbinafine therapy
E) Urgent surgical evaluation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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