A 35-year-old man comes to the office due to painful bumps on his neck. For the last 6 months, he has had a progressive rash on his anterior neck that has not improved with over-the-counter emollients. Medical history is unremarkable. Vital signs are within normal limits. Skin examination findings are as shown:
The remainder of the examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient's skin condition?
A) Advise topical benzoyl peroxide
B) Prescribe oral terbinafine
C) Prescribe topical imiquimod
D) Prescribe topical mupirocin
E) Recommend discontinuation of shaving
Correct Answer:
Verified
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