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A 67-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Office Due to 4

Question 399

Multiple Choice

A 67-year-old woman comes to the office due to 4 weeks of upper abdominal pain.  She also has epigastric fullness and mild nausea that occur mostly after eating and sometimes at night.  The patient has had no vomiting, weight loss, dysphagia, acid reflux, or black or bloody stools.  Medical history includes hypertension, hyperlipidemia, migraines, and mild intermittent asthma.  Medications include lisinopril and atorvastatin.  The patient's father died of colon cancer at age 75.  On physical examination, the abdomen is soft and nontender.  There is no jaundice or palpable masses.  Hemoglobin is 13.2 g/dL.  Colonoscopy 3 years ago was normal.  Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?


A) Barium swallow study
B) Empiric pantoprazole therapy with clinical follow-up
C) Stool test for Helicobacter pylori antigen
D) Ultrasound of the right upper quadrant of the abdomen
E) Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy

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