A 54-year-old man comes to the office due to a recent finding of abnormal liver function tests. Four weeks ago, he went to the emergency department due to 2 days of diarrhea and vomiting. During the evaluation for viral gastroenteritis, the patient was found to have elevated liver aminotransferase levels and was advised to follow up with his primary care physician. Since then, his gastrointestinal symptoms have improved. He has had no fever, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, jaundice, or pruritus. The patient has no chronic medical problems. He had an appendectomy during childhood with some operative complications requiring blood transfusions. His only medication is ibuprofen as needed. The patient does not use tobacco or illicit drugs and drinks alcohol occasionally. He is married and in a monogamous relationship. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 78/min. He has no scleral icterus, and mucous membranes are pink and moist. Cardiopulmonary examination is unremarkable. The abdomen is soft and nontender with no organomegaly. Current laboratory results are as follows:
The laboratory results are discussed with the patient, and a plan for treatment with direct-acting antivirals is made. The patient agrees to abstinence from alcohol as well as regular follow-up. Which of the following additional interventions is most appropriate in this patient?
A) Barrier contraception to prevent transmission
B) Complete avoidance of acetaminophen
C) Depression screening questionnaire
D) Hepatitis A vaccine
E) Quantitative PCR for hepatitis B virus DNA
Correct Answer:
Verified
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