A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to abdominal cramps, diarrhea, and fever that started 3 days ago. The patient initially had 3 or 4 stools per day for 2 days but, today, had 7 watery stools; the stools have not had gross blood or mucus or black discoloration. The patient has also had generalized weakness and malaise. Two weeks ago, he was treated with oral antibiotics for acute cellulitis. Since then, the patient's appetite has decreased, and he has had mild bloating. He has no history of recent travel, unusual foods, or sick contacts with similar symptoms. Other medical conditions include type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. Temperature is 38.7 C (101.7 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 95/min. Physical examination shows moderate abdominal tenderness. The cellulitis has resolved. Leukocytes are 26,000/mm3, serum creatinine is 1.9 mg/dL (increased from 1.2 mg/dL 2 months ago) , and serum albumin is 2.9 g/dL. The patient does not want to be admitted to the hospital and would like to be treated as an outpatient.
Stool PCR testing for Clostridioides difficile PCR is positive. The patient is adamant about going home. He is given a prescription for oral fidaxomicin and discharged home against medical advice. The patient returns 2 days later feeling much worse. He says, "I just got the pills today and have taken only one dose." Temperature is 38.9 C (102 F) , blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, pulse is 114/min, and respirations are 24/min. The patient appears uncomfortable. The abdomen is distended, and bowel sounds are decreased; there is tenderness and guarding to palpation. CT scan of the abdomen shows diffuse colonic wall thickening and dilation. In addition to the appropriate oral pharmacotherapy, what is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Colonoscopic decompression
B) Intravenous corticosteroid therapy
C) Intravenous vancomycin therapy
D) No additional intervention
E) Surgical consultation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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