A 62-year-old man comes to the office for follow-up after recent hospitalization. Two weeks ago, the patient went to the emergency department due to a 3-day history of fever, chills, dysuria, urinary frequency, and low back pain. Evaluation showed a tender and swollen prostate, leukocytosis, pyuria, and bacteriuria. Treatment for acute bacterial prostatitis was begun with intravenous antibiotics. Blood and urine cultures returned positive for Escherichia coli sensitive to all tested antibiotics. The patient was discharged after clinical improvement and was prescribed oral ciprofloxacin. He has had no fever, and urinary symptoms have resolved, but over the last 2 days, he has had mild abdominal cramps and 4 or 5 watery bowel movements per day with no blood or mucus. Other medical conditions include hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. On examination, the patient is afebrile, and other vital signs are within normal limits. There is mild periumbilical tenderness, but physical examination is otherwise unremarkable. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 14,500/mm3 and serum creatinine level of 0.9 mg/dL. Stool testing is positive for Clostridioides difficile.
In addition to oral fidaxomicin therapy, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) No additional work-up or antibiotic change necessary
B) Obtain CT scan of the abdomen with oral contrast
C) Switch ciprofloxacin to amoxicillin-clavulanate
D) Switch ciprofloxacin to metronidazole
E) Switch ciprofloxacin to trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Correct Answer:
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