A 26-year-old day care worker comes to the clinic after prolonged close contact with a child who has meningococcal meningitis. She has a history of irritable bowel syndrome. The patient's current medications include oral contraceptives and a multivitamin. She is concerned about her risk for acquiring meningitis and asks for advice. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A) Admit her to the hospital for quarantine
B) Prescribe ciprofloxacin as a single dose
C) Prescribe penicillin for 30 doses
D) Prescribe rifampin twice daily for 2 days
E) Provide reassurance without specific medical treatment
Correct Answer:
Verified
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