Solved

A 64-Year-Old Man Comes to the Physician for Follow-Up of an Abnormal

Question 635

Multiple Choice

A 64-year-old man comes to the physician for follow-up of an abnormal test.  He was hospitalized a week earlier for an episode of acute urinary retention provoked by amitriptyline.  His other medical problems include post-herpetic neuralgia, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a stable abdominal aortic aneurysm.  He is a former smoker and his father had prostate cancer.  Physical examination during the admission showed a moderately enlarged, nontender prostate with no nodularity.  The obstruction was relieved by a Foley catheter, and amitriptyline was stopped.  The patient has had no voiding difficulties or other urinary symptoms since being discharged.  Blood tests at the time of hospital admission showed a white blood cell count of 12,000/µL, creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL, and serum prostate-specific antigen of 7.5 ng/mL (normal <4 ng/mL) .  No prior prostate-specific antigen levels are available for comparison.  Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?


A) Consult a urologist for transurethral resection of the prostate
B) Order computed tomography scan of the pelvis
C) Refer for cystoscopy
D) Repeat prostate-specific antigen test in 6-8 weeks
E) Schedule transrectal ultrasound with prostate biopsy

Correct Answer:

verifed

Verified

Unlock this answer now
Get Access to more Verified Answers free of charge

Related Questions

Unlock this Answer For Free Now!

View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions

qr-code

Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks

upload documents

Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents