A 24-year-old female is brought to the emergency department (ED) after an episode of witnessed seizure activity in her home. Her mother says that she has a history of generalized tonic-clonic seizures. She has been seizure-free for the past six years. She stopped taking all her medications two years ago. Her only current daily medication includes a multivitamin and an oral contraceptive pill. At the ED, she is given a loading dose of IV fosphenytoin and started on maintenance doses of oral phenytoin. Over the next three days, she does not have any further seizures. On the fourth day, she has developed a horizontal nystagmus. Her total phenytoin level on the same day is 20 mcg/mL (normal range is10-20 mcg/mL) . Repeat blood work returns with the same value. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A) Stop phenytoin completely.
B) Stop phenytoin and repeat the drug levels in two days.
C) Continue treatment and repeat the drug levels in two days.
D) Discontinue the oral contraceptive pill.
E) Reduce the dose of phenytoin.
Correct Answer:
Verified
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