A 42-year-old woman comes to the office due to 6 months of worsening headaches. The patient has had occasional headaches in the past, but lately "they seem to be getting out of control" and are often throbbing. She also has constant, pressure-like headaches localized behind the forehead and eyes. The patient takes acetaminophen and ibuprofen and recently began taking them on a daily basis. The medications often make her nauseated, and she has had several episodes of vomiting. The patient also has blurry vision but no muscle weakness, syncope, or seizures. She experiences a considerable amount of stress at work and says that she "cannot afford to slow down." Medical history is significant for irritable bowel syndrome and chronic back pain. She smokes a pack of cigarettes daily. The patient's mother suffered from migraines and had surgery for a meningioma. Her father died of a drug overdose. Blood pressure is 155/98 mm Hg and pulse is 83/min. BMI is 27 kg/m2. Chest examination is unremarkable. Abdominal examination shows mild periumbilical tenderness. There is no muscle weakness, and the deep tendon reflexes are symmetric. There is no hand tremor. Romberg test is negative. Funduscopic findings are shown in the image below.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure reading
B) Brain MRI with contrast
C) Lumbar puncture
D) Sumatriptan initiation and tapering of other analgesics
E) Urine toxicology screen
Correct Answer:
Verified
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