A 28-year-old man comes to the office for a health maintenance visit. He has no history of serious illness but reports periodic headaches over the last several years that often respond to acetaminophen. Occasionally the headaches are severe enough to necessitate taking a sick day from work. He cannot recall specific triggers but notes that the headaches are usually unilateral. The patient does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. He drinks alcohol socially and 2-3 cups of coffee daily. He is a software engineer and often works at a computer 10-12 hours a day. His sister has a history of migraines. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination, including neurological examination, is normal. Item 1 of 4
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient's headaches?
A) Advise to stop taking all analgesics
B) Obtain MRI of the brain
C) Prescribe nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and as-needed sumatriptan
D) Reassure and advise lifestyle modifications
E) Recommend to keep a headache diary and follow up
Correct Answer:
Verified
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